The alternate form of the derivative is
$$f'(a)=\lim_\limits{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}$$
Can this be rewritten to this and still be true?
$$f'(a)=\lim_\limits{x \to a}\frac{f(a)-f(x)}{a-x}$$
If what I wrote violates any limit rule please tell me.
$\endgroup$ 61 Answer
$\begingroup$Yes. But you're not using any properties of limits. Notice that the fractions inside the limits are actually the same:
$$\dfrac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a} = \dfrac{-(-f(x)+f(a))}{-(-x+a)} = \dfrac{-1}{-1} \cdot \dfrac{f(a)-f(x)}{a-x} = \dfrac{f(a)-f(x)}{a-x}$$
$\endgroup$ 3